HR INTERVIEW SOLUTIONS

Wednesday, March 4, 2009

Below is a list of frequently asked questions in various interviews...

Click on the questions to view the requisite solutions...

I would love to receive your comments and suggestions regarding this endeavor of mine... Mail me at
sampat.honey@gmail.com / patnaik.sampat@gmail.com



01: Tell me about yourself ?



02: What are your greatest strengths ?



03: What are your greatest weaknesses?



04: Why should I hire you?



05. What are your Short Term Goals?



06: What are your Long Term Goals?



07: How do you evaluate success ?



08: What is your Salary Expectation ?



09: How many hours a week do you normally work?



10: Are you willing to travel?



11: How do you feel about working nights and weekends?



12: The “Silent Treatment”



13: What good books have you read lately?



14: Where do you see yourself five years from now?



15: Describe your ideal company, location and job.



16: Who has inspired you in your life and why?



17: Why do you want to work for us?



18: What do you know about this company?



19: Can you work under pressure?



20: What makes you angry?



21: Aren’t you overqualified for this position?



22: Would you lie for the company?



23: Tell me something negative you’ve heard about our company !!!



24 : Demonstrate Your Skills : Sell this stapler,etc or some object on the desk



25: What are your goals?



26: What was the toughest challenge you’ve ever faced?



27: The “Hypothetical Problem” – What would you do if… ?



28: What do you worry about?



29: Give me an example of your creativity (analytical skill…managing ability, etc.)



30: How could you have improved your career progress?



31: What was the toughest decision you ever had to make?



32: Looking back, what would you do differently in your life?



33: How do you feel about reporting to a younger person (minority, woman, etc)?



34: The “Fatal Flaw” question



35: What are your outside interests?



36: What are your career options right now?



37: Do you prefer to work alone or as a team player?



38: What made you choose your major?



39: Why didn’t you pursue a career in your major?



40: What do you seek from a job?



41: Tell me about something you did – or failed to do – that you now feel a little ashamed of.



42: Tell me about a situation when your work was criticized.



43: What changes would you make if you came on board?



44: I’m concerned that you don’t have as much experience as we’d like in…



45: What would you say to your boss if he’s crazy about an idea, but you think it stinks?



46: Why aren’t you earning more money at this stage of your career?



47: Tell me about the most boring job you’ve ever had.



48: What do you see as the proper role/mission of a good (job title you’re seeking) in serving the community



49: What would you do if a colleague wasn’t pulling his/her weight…and this was hurting your department?



50: POSSIBLE FOLLOW-UP QUESTION:



51: What’s the most difficult part of being a (job title)?



52: Why are you leaving (or did you leave) this position?



53: Tell me honestly about the strong points and weak points of your boss (company, management team, etc.)…



54: CONFIDENTIAL ISSUES



55: Could you have done better in your last job?



56: You’ve been with your firm a long time. Won’t it be hard switching to a new company?



57: Why have you had so many jobs?



58: May I contact your present employer for a reference?



59: Have you considered starting your own business?



60: THE ILLEGAL QUESTION



61: THE SECRET ILLEGAL QUESTION



62: What was the toughest part of your last job?



63: Looking back on your last position, have you done your best work?



64: Why should I hire you from the outside when I could promote someone from within?



65: Do you have the stomach to fire people? Have you had experience firing many people?



66: What do you for when you hire people?



67: Have you been absent from work more than a few days in any previous position?



68: Why have you been out of work so long?



69: If you won A $10 million lottery, would you still work?



70:Is there anything else that we should know about you that would impact our decision?



71: During your performance reviews, what criticism do you hear the most?



72: If I tell you, you are an IDIOT, a FOOL, a RASCAL; can you think anything positive about it?



73: Suppose I tell you I don’t like your face? Then why should I select you?



74: What will you do if you are asked to give a bribe?



75: If your boss is taking all the credits for your work, what will you do?



76: Suppose you find yourself in a deserted island. What three things you will need to survive?



77: How do you think you conducted or performed during this interview?



78: On a scale of one to ten, rate me as an interviewer.




Read more...

OS APTITUDE

Following are a few basic questions that cover the essentials of OS:

1. Explain the concept of Reentrancy.

It is a useful, memory-saving technique for multiprogrammed timesharing systems. A Reentrant Procedure is one in which multiple users can share a single copy of a program during the same period. Reentrancy has 2 key aspects: The program code cannot modify itself, and the local data for each user process must be stored separately. Thus, the permanent part is the code, and the temporary part is the pointer back to the calling program and local variables used by that program. Each execution instance is called activation. It executes the code in the permanent part, but has its own copy of local variables/parameters. The temporary part associated with each activation is the activation record. Generally, the activation record is kept on the stack.

Note: A reentrant procedure can be interrupted and called by an interrupting program, and still execute correctly on returning to the procedure.

2. Explain Belady's Anomaly.

Also called FIFO anomaly. Usually, on increasing the number of frames allocated to a process' virtual memory, the process execution is faster, because fewer page faults occur. Sometimes, the reverse happens, i.e., the execution time increases even when more frames are allocated to the process. This is Belady's Anomaly. This is true for certain page reference patterns.

3. What is a binary semaphore? What is its use?

A binary semaphore is one, which takes only 0 and 1 as values. They are used to implement mutual exclusion and synchronize concurrent processes.

4. What is thrashing?

It is a phenomenon in virtual memory schemes when the processor spends most of its time swapping pages, rather than executing instructions. This is due to an inordinate number of page faults.

5. List the Coffman's conditions that lead to a deadlock.

  • Mutual Exclusion: Only one process may use a critical resource at a time.
  • Hold & Wait: A process may be allocated some resources while waiting for others.
  • No Pre-emption: No resource can be forcible removed from a process holding it.
  • Circular Wait: A closed chain of processes exist such that each process holds at least one resource needed by another process in the chain.
6. What are short-, long- and medium-term scheduling?

Long term scheduler determines which programs are admitted to the system for processing. It controls the degree of multiprogramming. Once admitted, a job becomes a process.

Medium term scheduling is part of the swapping function. This relates to processes that are in a blocked or suspended state. They are swapped out of real-memory until they are ready to execute. The swapping-in decision is based on memory-management criteria.

Short term scheduler, also know as a dispatcher executes most frequently, and makes the finest-grained decision of which process should execute next. This scheduler is invoked whenever an event occurs. It may lead to interruption of one process by preemption.

7. What are turnaround time and response time?

Turnaround time is the interval between the submission of a job and its completion. Response time is the interval between submission of a request, and the first response to that request.

8. What are the typical elements of a process image?

  • User data: Modifiable part of user space. May include program data, user stack area, and programs that may be modified.
  • User program: The instructions to be executed.
  • System Stack: Each process has one or more LIFO stacks associated with it. Used to store parameters and calling addresses for procedure and system calls.
  • Process control Block (PCB): Info needed by the OS to control processes.

9. What is the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB)?

In a cached system, the base addresses of the last few referenced pages is maintained in registers called the TLB that aids in faster lookup. TLB contains those page-table entries that have been most recently used. Normally, each virtual memory reference causes 2 physical memory accesses-- one to fetch appropriate page-table entry, and one to fetch the desired data. Using TLB in-between, this is reduced to just one physical memory access in cases of TLB-hit.

10. What is the resident set and working set of a process?

Resident set is that portion of the process image that is actually in real-memory at a particular instant. Working set is that subset of resident set that is actually needed for execution. (Relate this to the variable-window size method for swapping techniques.)

11. When is a system in safe state?

The set of dispatchable processes is in a safe state if there exists at least one temporal order in which all processes can be run to completion without resulting in a deadlock.

12. What is cycle stealing?

We encounter cycle stealing in the context of Direct Memory Access (DMA). Either the DMA controller can use the data bus when the CPU does not need it, or it may force the CPU to temporarily suspend operation. The latter technique is called cycle stealing. Note that cycle stealing can be done only at specific break points in an instruction cycle.

13. What is meant by arm-stickiness?

If one or a few processes have a high access rate to data on one track of a storage disk, then they may monopolize the device by repeated requests to that track. This generally happens with most common device scheduling algorithms (LIFO, SSTF, C-SCAN, etc). High-density multisurface disks are more likely to be affected by this than low density ones.

14. What are the stipulations of C2 level security?

C2 level security provides for:
  • Discretionary Access Control
  • Identification and Authentication
  • Auditing
  • Resource reuse

15. What is busy waiting?

The repeated execution of a loop of code while waiting for an event to occur is called busy-waiting. The CPU is not engaged in any real productive activity during this period, and the process does not progress toward completion.

16. Explain the popular multiprocessor thread-scheduling strategies.

  • Load Sharing: Processes are not assigned to a particular processor. A global queue of threads is maintained. Each processor, when idle, selects a thread from this queue. Note that load balancing refers to a scheme where work is allocated to processors on a more permanent basis.
  • Gang Scheduling: A set of related threads is scheduled to run on a set of processors at the same time, on a 1-to-1 basis. Closely related threads / processes may be scheduled this way to reduce synchronization blocking, and minimize process switching. Group scheduling predated this strategy.
  • Dedicated processor assignment: Provides implicit scheduling defined by assignment of threads to processors. For the duration of program execution, each program is allocated a set of processors equal in number to the number of threads in the program. Processors are chosen from the available pool.
  • Dynamic scheduling: The number of thread in a program can be altered during the course of execution.

17. When does the condition 'rendezvous' arise?

In message passing, it is the condition in which, both, the sender and receiver are blocked until the message is delivered.

18. What is a trap and trapdoor?

Trapdoor is a secret undocumented entry point into a program used to grant access without normal methods of access authentication. A trap is a software interrupt, usually the result of an error condition.

19. What are local and global page replacements?

Local replacement means that an incoming page is brought in only to the relevant process' address space. Global replacement policy allows any page frame from any process to be replaced. The latter is applicable to variable partitions model only.

20. Define latency, transfer and seek time with respect to disk I/O.

Seek time is the time required to move the disk arm to the required track. Rotational delay or latency is the time it takes for the beginning of the required sector to reach the head. Sum of seek time (if any) and latency is the access time. Time taken to actually transfer a span of data is transfer time.

21. Describe the Buddy system of memory allocation.

Free memory is maintained in linked lists, each of equal sized blocks. Any such block is of size 2^k. When some memory is required by a process, the block size of next higher order is chosen, and broken into two. Note that the two such pieces differ in address only in their kth bit. Such pieces are called buddies. When any used block is freed, the OS checks to see if its buddy is also free. If so, it is rejoined, and put into the original free-block linked-list.

22. What is time-stamping?

It is a technique proposed by Lamport, used to order events in a distributed system without the use of clocks. This scheme is intended to order events consisting of the transmission of messages. Each system 'i' in the network maintains a counter Ci. Every time a system transmits a message, it increments its counter by 1 and attaches the time-stamp Ti to the message. When a message is received, the receiving system 'j' sets its counter Cj to 1 more than the maximum of its current value and the incoming time-stamp Ti.

23. How are the wait/signal operations for monitor different from those for semaphores?

If a process in a monitor signal and no task is waiting on the condition variable, the signal is lost. So this allows easier program design. Whereas in semaphores, every operation affects the value of the semaphore, so the wait and signal operations should be perfectly balanced in the program.


24. In the context of memory management, what are placement and replacement algorithms?

Placement algorithms determine where in available real-memory to load a program. Common methods are first-fit, next-fit, best-fit. Replacement algorithms are used when memory is full, and one process (or part of a process) needs to be swapped out to accommodate a new program. The replacement algorithm determines which are the partitions to be swapped out.

25. In loading programs into memory, what is the difference between load-time dynamic linking and run-time dynamic linking?

For load-time dynamic linking: Load module to be loaded is read into memory. Any reference to a target external module causes that module to be loaded and the references are updated to a relative address from the start base address of the application module.
With run-time dynamic loading: Some of the linking is postponed until actual reference during execution. Then the correct module is loaded and linked.

26. What are demand- and pre-paging?

With demand paging, a page is brought into memory only when a location on that page is actually referenced during execution.

With pre-paging, pages other than the one demanded by a page fault are brought in. The selection of such pages is done based on common access patterns, especially for secondary memory devices.

27. Paging a memory management function, while multiprogramming a processor management function, are the two interdependent?

Yes.

28. What is page cannibalizing?

Page swapping or page replacements are called page cannibalizing.

29. What has triggered the need for multitasking in PCs?

  • Increased speed and memory capacity of microprocessors together with the support fir virtual memory and
  • Growth of client server computing

30. What are the four layers that Windows NT have in order to achieve independence?
  • Hardware abstraction layer
  • Kernel
  • Subsystems
  • System Services.

31. What is SMP?

To achieve maximum efficiency and reliability a mode of operation known as symmetric multiprocessing is used. In essence, with SMP any process or threads can be assigned to any processor.

32. What are the key object oriented concepts used by Windows NT?

  • Encapsulation
  • Object class and instance

33. Is Windows NT a full blown object oriented operating system? Give reasons.

No Windows NT is not so, because its not implemented in object oriented language and the data structures reside within one executive component and are not represented as objects and it does not support object oriented capabilities .

34. What is a drawback of MVT?

It does not have the features like
  • ability to support multiple processors
  • virtual storage
  • source level debugging

35. What is process spawning?

When the OS at the explicit request of another process creates a process, this action is called process spawning.

36. How many jobs can be run concurrently on MVT?

15 jobs

37. List out some reasons for process termination.

  • Normal completion
  • Time limit exceeded
  • Memory unavailable
  • Bounds violation
  • Protection error
  • Arithmetic error
  • Time overrun
  • I/O failure
  • Invalid instruction
  • Privileged instruction
  • Data misuse
  • Operator or OS intervention
  • Parent termination.

38. What are the reasons for process suspension?
  • swapping
  • interactive user request
  • timing
  • parent process request

39. What is process migration?

It is the transfer of sufficient amount of the state of process from one machine to the target machine

40. What is mutant?

In Windows NT a mutant provides kernel mode or user mode mutual exclusion with the notion of ownership.

41. What is an idle thread?

The special thread a dispatcher will execute when no ready thread is found.

42. What is FtDisk?

It is a fault tolerance disk driver for Windows NT.

43. What are the possible threads a thread can have?

  • Ready
  • Standby
  • Running
  • Waiting
  • Transition
  • Terminated.

44. What are rings in Windows NT?

Windows NT uses protection mechanism called rings provides by the process to implement separation between the user mode and kernel mode.

45. What is Executive in Windows NT?

In Windows NT, executive refers to the operating system code that runs in kernel mode.

46. What are the sub-components of I/O manager in Windows NT?
  • Network redirector/ Server
  • Cache manager.
  • File systems
  • Network driver
  • Device driver

47. What are DDks? Name an operating system that includes this feature.

DDks are device driver kits, which are equivalent to SDKs for writing device drivers. Windows NT includes DDks.

48. What level of security does Windows NT meets?

C2 level security.

Read more...

TECHNICAL QUESTIONS

1. A 2MB PCM(pulse code modulation) has

a) 32 channels
b) 30 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
c) 31 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
d) 32 channels out of which 30 voice channels, 1 signalling channel, & 1 Synchronizatio channel.
Ans: (c)
2. Time taken for 1 satellite hop in voice communication is

a) 1/2 second
b) 1 seconds
c) 4 seconds
d) 2 seconds
Ans: (a)
3. Max number of satellite hops allowed in voice communication is :

a) only one
b) more han one
c) two hops
d) four hops
Ans: (c)
4. What is the max. decimal number that can be accomodated in a byte.

a) 128
b) 256
c) 255
d) 512
Ans: (c)
5. Conditional results after execution of an instruction in a micro processor is stored in

a) register
b) accumulator
c) flag register
d) flag register part of PSW(Program Status Word)
Ans: (d)


6. Frequency at which VOICE is sampled is

a) 4 Khz
b) 8 Khz
c) 16 Khz
d) 64 Khz
Ans: (a)
7. Line of Sight is

a) Straight Line
b) Parabolic
c) Tx & Rx should be visible to each other
d) none
Ans: (c)
8. Purpose of PC(Program Counter) in a MicroProcessor is

a) To store address of TOS(Top Of Stack)
b) To store address of next instruction to be executed.
c) count the number of instructions.
d) to store base address of the stack.
Ans: (b)
9. What action is taken when the processor under execution is interrupted by a non-maskable interrupt?

a) Processor serves the interrupt request after completing the execution of the current instruction.
b) Processor serves the interupt request after completing the current task.
c) Processor serves the interupt request immediately.
d) Processor serving the interrupt request depends upon the priority of the current task under execution.
Ans: (a)
10. The status of the Kernel is

a) task
b) process
c) not defined.
d) none of the above.
Ans: (b)

11. To send a data packet using datagram , connection will be established

a) before data transmission.
b) connection is not established before data transmission.
c) no connection is required.
d) none of the above.
Ans: (c)

12. Word allignment is

a) alligning the address to the next word boundary of the machine.
b) alligning to even boundary.
c) alligning to word boundary.
d) none of the above.
Ans: (a)
13 When a 'C' function call is made, the order in which parameters passed to the function are pushed into the stack is

a) left to right
b) right to left
c) bigger variables are moved first than the smaller variales.
d) smaller variables are moved first than the bigger ones.
e) none of the above.
Ans: (b)
14 What is the type of signalling used between two exchanges?

a) inband
b) common channel signalling
c) any of the above
d) none of the above.
Ans: (a)
15 Buffering is

a) the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device speeds
b) a method to reduce cross talks
c) storage of data within transmitting medium until the receiver is ready to receive.
d) a method to reduce routing overhead.
Ans: (a)

16. Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is

a) allocated in RAM.
b) allocated in ROM.
c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers.
Ans: (c)

17. A software that allows a personal computer to pretend as a computer terminal is

a) terminal adapter
b) bulletin board
c) modem
d) terminal emulation
Ans: (d)
18. Find the output of the following program
int *p,*q;
p=(int *)1000;
q=(int *)2000;
printf("%d",(q-p));
Ans: 500

19. Which addressing mode is used in the following statements:
(a) MVI B,55
(b) MOV B,A
(c) MOV M,A
Ans. (a) Immediate addressing mode.
(b) Register Addressing Mode
(c) Direct addressing mode

20. RS-232C standard is used in _____________.
Ans. Serial I/O



21. Memory. Management in Operating Systems is done by

a) Memory Management Unit
b) Memory management software of the Operating System
c) Kernel
Ans: (b)

22. What is done for a Push opertion?
Ans: SP is decremented and then the value is stored.
23. Binary equivalent of 52

Ans. 110100


24. Hexadecimal equivalent of 3452

Ans. 72A


25. Explain Just In Time Concept ?

Ans. Elimination of waste by purchasing manufacturing exactly when needed


26. A good way of unit testing s/w program is

Ans. User test


27. OOT uses

Ans. Encapsulated of detect methods


28.EDI useful in

Ans. Electronic Transmission


29. MRPII different from MRP

Ans. Modular version of man redundant initials


30. Hard disk time for R/W head to move to correct sector

Ans. Latency Time


31. The percentage of times a page number bound in associate register is called

Ans. Bit ratio


32. Expand MODEM

Ans. Modulator and Demodulator


33. RDBMS file system can be defined as

Ans. Interrelated


34. Super Key is

Ans. Primary key and Attribute


35. Windows 95 supports

(a) Multiuser
(b) n tasks
(c) Both
(d) None

Ans. (a)


36.In the command scanf, h is used for

Ans. Short int


37.A process is defined as

Ans. Program in execution


38.A thread is

Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)


39.What is the advantage of Win NT over Win 95

Ans. Robust and secure



40.How is memory management done in Win95

Ans. Through paging and segmentation


41.What is meant by polymorphism

Ans. Redfinition of a base class method in a derived class


42.What is the essential feature of inheritance

Ans. All properties of existing class are derived


43.What does the protocol FTP do

Ans. Transfer a file b/w stations with user authentification


44.In the transport layer ,TCP is what type of protocol

Ans. Connection oriented


45.Why is a gateway used

Ans. To connect incompatible networks


46.How is linked list implemented

Ans. By referential structures


47.What method is used in Win95 in multitasking

Ans. Non preemptive check


48.What is a semaphore

Ans. A method synchronization of multiple processes


49.What is the precedence order from high to low ,of the symbols ( ) ++ /

Ans.( ) , ++, /



50.Preorder of A*(B+C)/D-G

Ans.*+ABC/-DG

51.What is the efficiency of merge sort

Ans. O(n log n)


52.In which layer are routers used

Ans.In network layer


53.Which of the following sorting algorithem has average sorting behavior --
Bubble sort,merge sort,heap sort,exchange sort

Ans. Heap sort


54.In binary search tree which traversal is used for getting ascending order values--Inorder ,post order,preorder

Ans.Inorder


55.What are device drivers used for

Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware


56.What is fork command in unix

Ans. System call used to create process


57.What is make command in unix

Ans. Used forcreation of more than one file


58.In unix .profile contains

Ans. Start up program


59.In unix 'ls 'stores contents in

Ans.inode block

60. Which of the following involves context switch,
(a) system call
(b) priviliged instruction
(c) floating poitnt exception
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: (a)

61. In OST, terminal emulation is done in
(a) sessions layer
(b) application layer
(c) presentation layer
(d) transport layer
Ans: (b)
62. For 1 MB memory, the number of address lines required,
(a)11
(b)16
(c)22
(d) 24
Ans. (b)
63. Semaphore is used for
(a) synchronization
(b) dead-lock avoidence
(c) box
(d) none
Ans. (a)
64. Which holds true for the following statement
class c: public A, public B
a) 2 member in class A, B should not have same name
b) 2 member in class A, C should not have same name
c) both
d) none
Ans. (a)
65.Preproconia.. does not do which one of the following
(a) macro
(b) conditional compliclation
(c) in type checking
(d) including load file
Ans. (c)

66. Piggy backing is a technique for
a) Flow control
b) Sequence
c) Acknowledgement
d) retransmition
Ans. (c)

67. Which is not a memory management scheme?
a) buddy system
b) swapping
c) monitors
d) paging
Ans : c
68. There was a circuit given using three nand gates with two inputs and one output.
Find the output.
a) OR
b) AND
c) XOR
d) NOT
Ans. (a)

69.Iintegrated check value(ICV) are used as:
Ans. The client computes the ICV and then compares it with the senders value.
70. When applets are downloaded from web sites , a byte verifier performs _________?
Ans. Status check.

71. An IP/IPX packet received by a computer using... having IP/IPX both how the packet is handled.
Ans. Read the, field in the packet header with to send IP or IPX protocol.
72. The UNIX shell ....
a) does not come with the rest of the system
b) forms the interface between the user and the kernal
c) does not give any scope for programming
d) deos not allow calling one program from with in another
e) all of the above
Ans. (b)
73. In UNIX a files i-node ......?
Ans. Is a data structure that defines all specifications of a file like the file size,
number of lines to a file, permissions etc.
74. The very first process created by the kernal that runs till the kernal process is halts is
a) init
b) getty
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
Ans. (a)
75. In the process table entry for the kernel process, the process id value is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 255
(e) it does not have a process table entry
Ans. (a)

76. Which of the following API is used to hide a window
a) ShowWindow
b) EnableWindow
c) MoveWindow
d) SetWindowPlacement
e) None of the above
Ans. (a)
77. Which function is the entry point for a DLL in MS Windows 3.1
a) Main
b) Winmain
c) Dllmain
d) Libmain
e) None
Ans. (b)
78. The standard source for standard input, standard output and standard error is
a) the terminal
b) /dev/null
c) /usr/you/input, /usr/you/output/, /usr/you/error respectively
d) None
Ans. (a)
79. The redirection operators > and >>
a) do the same function
b) differ : > overwrites, while >> appends
c) differ : > is used for input while >> is used for output
d) differ : > write to any file while >> write only to standard output
e) None of these
Ans. (b)
80. The command grep first second third /usr/you/myfile
a) prints lines containing the words first, second or third from the file /usr/you/myfile
b) searches for lines containing the pattern first in the files
second, third, and /usr/you/myfile and prints them
c) searches the files /usr/you/myfiel and third for lines containing the words first or second and prints them
d) replaces the word first with the word second in the files third and /usr/you/myfile
e) None of the above
Ans. (b)
81. You are creating a Index on EMPNO column in the EMPLOYEE table. Which statement will you use?
a) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee, empno;
b) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx FOR employee, empno;
c) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee(empno);
d) CREATE emp_empno_idx INdEX ON employee(empno);

Ans. c

82. Which program construct must return a value?
a) Package
b) Function
c) Anonymous block
d) Stored Procedure
e) Application Procedure

Ans. b

83. Which Statement would you use to remove the EMPLOYEE_Id_PK PRIMARY KEY constraint and all depending constraints fromthe EMPLOYEE table?
a) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
b) ALTER TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
c) MOdIFY TABLE employee dROP CONSTRAINT employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
d) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
e) MOdIFY TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;

Ans. a

84. Which three commands cause a transaction to end? (Chosse three)
a) ALTER
b) GRANT
c) DELETE
d) INSERT
e) UPdATE
f) ROLLBACK
Ans. a ,b ,f
85. Under which circumstance should you create an index on a table?
a) The table is small.
b) The table is updated frequently.
c) A columns values are static and contain a narrow range of values
d) Two columns are consistently used in the WHERE clause join condition of SELECT
statements.

Ans.d
86. What was the first name given to Java Programming Language.

a) Oak - Java
b) Small Talk
c) Oak
d) None

Ans.a

87.When a bicycle is in motion,the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such that it acts
(a) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel.
(b) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel.
(c) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
(d) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
Ans. (d)

88. A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds.
In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly
(a) 29%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 45%
Ans. (a)

89. Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?
(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time
Ans. (b)

90. A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100.
It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z.
In both processes a charged particle is emitted.
Which of the following statements would be true?
(a) y has an atomic number of 102
(b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100
(d) z has an atomic number of 101
Ans. (b)

91. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals
then a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

92. A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times.
He throws a die and reports it to be a 6.
What is the probability of it being a 6?
(a) 3/8
(b) 5/8
(c) 3/4
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

93. If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a
(a) Right angle triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

94. Image of point (3,8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is
(a) (-1,-4)
(b) (-1,4)
(c) (2,-4)
(d) (-2,-4)
Ans. (a)


95. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

96. The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface
Ans. (c)

97. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference
(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or
the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source
Ans. (c)

98. When X-Ray photons collide with electrons
(a) They slow down
(b) Their mass increases
(c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases
Ans. (c)



99. An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit
(b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits
Ans. (b)

100. How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 4
Ans. (d)

Read more...

APTITUDE

1.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15
(b)12
(c)18
(d)10

Ans. (b)

2.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

(a)12
(b)8
(c)16
(d)6

Ans. (b)

3. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?

(a) 99/1020
(b) 99/10
(c) 0.9
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

4.Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank

(a) 17 1/7 mins
(b) 20 mins
(c) 8 mins
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job?

(a) 8 hrs
(b) 7 1/2 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 9 hrs

Ans. (b)

6. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728

(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 8
(d) none of these

Ans. (c)

7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?

(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these

Ans. (b)

8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?

(a) 38.5 sq.m
(b) 155 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m
(d) 19.25 sq.m

Ans. (a)

9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?

Ans.46 steps.

10. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ?

Ans.40 years.

11. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?

12. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?

Ans. AE = 10.

13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?

Ans. BC = 4 cm.

15 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.

Ans. 64/2210.

16. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?

Ans. 991.

17. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?

Ans. x = e2 or e3.

18. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The ten's place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number?

Ans. 46

19.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.?

Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.

20.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?

Ans.18 hours.

21. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12

Ans. 9

22. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture?

Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.

23. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo?

Ans. 360 years old.

24. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they?

Ans. Three.

25. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day?

Ans. Eight.

26. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?

Ans. Five minutes.

27. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose?

Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.

28. Solve for x and y: 1/x - 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9.

Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.

29. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per
kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?

Ans. 20 %.

30. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6.

Ans. 10.

31. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?

Ans. Friday.

32. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?

Ans. 1700 men.

33. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?

Ans. 3720.

34. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled?

Ans. 167 minutes.

35. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time?

Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.

36.For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. By way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is $0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is $1.00 for the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A two-lane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C.


1. Which is the shortest route from B to C

(a) Directly on toll free highway to City C
(b) The bridge
(c) The Tunnel
(d) The bridge or the tunnel
(e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway

Ans. (a)


2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of toll and distance is to use the

(a) tunnel
(b) bridge
(c) bridge or tunnel
(d) toll free highway
(e) bridge and highway

Ans. (a)


3. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel ?

(a) Whether his wife goes with him
(b) scenic beauty on the route
(c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel
(d) saving $0.25 in tolls
(e) price of gasoline consumed in covering additional 10 miles on the bridge

Ans. (a)


4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel the chief factor(s) would be:
I. Traffic and road conditions
II. Number of passengers in the car
III. Location of one's homes in the center or outskirts of one of the cities
IV. Desire to save $0.25

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) III and IV only
(e) I and II only

Ans. (a)


37.The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarily in that order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10
D is 3 less than A
B is the middle term
F is as much less than B as C is greater than D
G is greater than F

1. The fifth integer is
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

Ans. (a)


2. A is as much greater than F as which integer is less than G
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Ans. (a)


3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
(e) 16

Ans. (a)

4. A - F = ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) Cannot be determined

Ans. (a)


5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written as A + E. What is D?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) Cannot be determined

Ans. (a)


6. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible value of D?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6

Ans. (a)



38.
1. All G's are H's
2. All G's are J's or K's
3. All J's and K's are G's
4. All L's are K's
5. All N's are M's
6. No M's are G's


1. If no P's are K's, which of the following must be true?

(a) All P's are J's
(b) No P is a G
(c) No P is an H
(d) If any P is an H it is a G
(e) If any P is a G it is a J

Ans. (a)


2. Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated?

(a) No M's are H's
(b) No M's that are not N's are H's
(c) No H's are M's
(d) Some M's are H's
(e) All M's are H's

Ans. (a)


3. Which of the following is inconsistent with one or more of the conditions?

(a) All H's are G's
(b) All H's that are not G's are M's
(c) Some H's are both M's and G's
(d) No M's are H's
(e) All M's are H's

Ans. (a)


4. The statement "No L's are J's" is
I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated
II. Consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated
III. Deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement "No J's are K's"

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only
(e) Neither I, II nor III

Ans. (a)



39.In country X, democratic, conservative and justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore stability an agreement is reached to rotate the top offices President, Prime Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each party controls one and only one office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members of his or her chiefs party and member of the third party.

1. When Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true

(a) Some of the staff members within that office are justice party members
(b) Some of the staff members within that office are democratic party members
(c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are justice party members
(d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are conservative party members
(e) Some of the staff members within the other offices are justice party members.

Ans. (a)


2. When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime minister's deputies are composed
I. One-fourth of democratic party members
II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth of conservative party members
III. One-half of conservative party members and one-fourth of justice party members.

(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II or III but not both
(d) I and II or I and III
(e) None of these

Ans. (a)


3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated:

(a) More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(c) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior
(d) Half the total number of staff members in all three offices belonging to a single party
(e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging to parties different from the party of the top office holder in that office.

Ans. (a)


4. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following must be fired.

(a) The democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to Justice party
(b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members
(c) Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative staff members in the chief of staff office
(d) The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to Conservative party
(e) No deputies and all staff members belonging to conservative parties.

Ans. (a)



40.In recommendations to the board of trustees a tuition increase of $500 per year, the president of the university said "There were no student demonstrations over the previous increases of $300 last year and $200 the year before". If the president's statement is accurate then which of the following can be validly inferred from the information given:
I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased operating costs.
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new tuition increases.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I or II but not both
(d) I, II and III
(e) None

Ans. (a)

41. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently consists of three bookeepers--A, B, C and 5 secretaries D, E, F, G, H. The management is planning to open a new office in another city using 2 bookeepers and 3 secretaries of the present staff . To do so they plan to seperate certain individuals who don't function well together. The following guidelines were established to set up the new office
I. Bookeepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent together to the new office as a team
II. C and E function well alone but not as a team , they should be seperated
III. D and G have not been on speaking terms and shouldn't go together
IV Since D and F have been competing for promotion they shouldn't be a team

1.If A is to be moved as one of the bookeepers,which of the following cannot be a possible working unit.

A.ABDEH
B.ABDGH
C.ABEFH
D.ABEGH

Ans.B


2.If C and F are moved to the new office,how many combinations are possible

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4

Ans.A


3.If C is sent to the new office,which member of the staff cannot go with C

A.B
B.D
C.F
D.G

Ans.B


4.Under the guidelines developed,which of the following must go to the new office

A.B
B.D
C.E
D.G

Ans.A


5.If D goes to the new office,which of the following is/are true

I.C cannot go
II.A cannot go
III.H must also go

A.I only
B.II only
C.I and II only
D.I and III only

Ans.D


42.After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the president of the college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to 5--A, B, C, D, E .It was announced that the finalist would be chosen after a series of all-day group personal interviews were held.The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure

I.The interviews will be held once a week
II.3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session
III.Each candidate will appear at least once
IV.If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additonal interviews, no more 1 such applicant should be asked to appear the next week
V.Because of a detail in the written applications,it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present.
VI.Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C will appear for only 1 interview.

1.At the first interview the following candidates appear A,B,D.Which of the follwing combinations can be called for the interview to be held next week.

A.BCD
B.CDE
C.ABE
D.ABC

Ans.B


2.Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in 2 successive weeks

A.ABC;BDE
B.ABD;ABE
C.ADE;ABC
D.BDE;ACD

Ans.C


3.If A ,B and D appear for the interview and D is called for additional interview the following week,which 2 candidates may be asked to appear with D?

I. A
II B
III.C
IV.E
A.I and II
B.I and III only
C.II and III only
D.III and IV only

Ans.D


4.Which of the following correctly state(s) the procedure followed by the search committee

I.After the second interview all applicants have appeared at least once
II.The committee sees each applicant a second time
III.If a third session,it is possible for all applicants to appear at least twice

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.Both I and II

Ans.A


43. A certain city is served by subway lines A,B and C and numbers 1 2 and 3
When it snows , morning service on B is delayed
When it rains or snows , service on A, 2 and 3 are delayed both in the morning and afternoon
When temp. falls below 30 degrees farenheit afternoon service is cancelled in either the A line or the 3 line,
but not both.
When the temperature rises over 90 degrees farenheit, the afternoon service is cancelled in either the line C or the
3 line but not both.
When the service on the A line is delayed or cancelled, service on the C line which connects the A line, is delayed.
When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line which connects the 3 line is delayed.

Q1. On Jan 10th, with the temperature at 15 degree farenheit, it snows all day. On how many lines will service be
affected, including both morning and afternoon.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. D

Q2. On Aug 15th with the temperature at 97 degrees farenheit it begins to rain at 1 PM. What is the minimum number
of lines on which service will be affected?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. C

Q3. On which of the following occasions would service be on the greatest number of lines disrupted.
(A) A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(B) A snowy morning with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(C) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(D) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 95 degree farenheit
Ans. B

44. In a certain society, there are two marriage groups, red and brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wives groups; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden

Q1.
A brown female could have had
I. A grandfather born Red
II. A grandmother born Red
III Two grandfathers born Brown

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I, II and III
(D) I and II only
Ans. D

Q2. A male born into the brown group may have
(A) An uncle in either group
(B) A brown daughter
(C) A brown son
(D) A son-in-law born into red group
Ans. A

Q3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated.
(A) A brown male marrying his father's sister
(B) A red female marrying her mother's brother
(C) A widower marrying his wife's sister
(D) A widow marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
Ans. B

Q4. If widowers and divorced males retained their group they had upon marrying which of the following would be permissible ( Assume that no previous marriage occurred)
(A) A woman marrying her dead sister's husband
(B) A woman marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
(C) A widower marrying his brother's daughter
(D) A woman marrying her mother's brother who is a widower.
Ans. D

Q5. I. All G's are H's
II. All G's are J's or K's
III All J's and K's are G's
IV All L's are K's
V All N's are M's
VI No M's are G's

45. There are six steps that lead from the first to the second floor. No two people can be on the same step
Mr. A is two steps below Mr. C
Mr. B is a step next to Mr. D
Only one step is vacant ( No one standing on that step )
Denote the first step by step 1 and second step by step 2 etc.

1. If Mr. A is on the first step, Which of the following is true?
(a) Mr. B is on the second step
(b) Mr. C is on the fourth step.
(c) A person Mr. E, could be on the third step
(d) Mr. D is on higher step than Mr. C.
Ans: (d)

2. If Mr. E was on the third step & Mr. B was on a higher step than Mr. E which step must be vacant
(a) step 1
(b) step 2
(c) step 4
(d) step 5
(e) step 6
Ans: (a)

3. If Mr. B was on step 1, which step could A be on?
(a) 2&e only
(b) 3&5 only
(c) 3&4 only
(d) 4&5 only
(e) 2&4 only
Ans: (c)

4. If there were two steps between the step that A was standing and the step that B was standing on, and A was on a higher step than D , A must be on step
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
Ans: (c)

5. Which of the following is false

i. B&D can be both on odd-numbered steps in one configuration
ii. In a particular configuration A and C must either both an odd numbered steps or both an even-numbered steps
iii. A person E can be on a step next to the vacant step.
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) iii only
(d) both i and iii
Ans: (c)

46. Six swimmers A, B, C, D, E, F compete in a race. The outcome is as follows.

i. B does not win.
ii. Only two swimmers separate E & D
iii. A is behind D & E
iv. B is ahead of E , with one swimmer intervening
v. F is a head of D

1. Who stood fifth in the race ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans: (e)

2. How many swimmers seperate A and F ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) cannot be determined

Ans: (d)

3. The swimmer between C & E is

(a) none
(b) F
(c) D
(d) B
(e) A

Ans: (a)


4. If the end of the race, swimmer D is disqualified by the Judges then swimmer B finishes in which place
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

Ans: (b)

47. Five houses lettered A,B,C,D, & E are built in a row next to each other. The houses are lined up in the order A,B,C,D, & E. Each of the five houses has a colored chimney. The roof and chimney of each housemust be painted as follows.
i. The roof must be painted either green,red ,or yellow.
ii. The chimney must be painted either white, black, or red.
iii. No house may have the same color chimney as the color of roof.
iv. No house may use any of the same colors that the every next house uses.
v. House E has a green roof.
vi. House B has a red roof and a black chimney

1. Which of the following is true ?

(a) At least two houses have black chimney.
(b) At least two houses have red roofs.
(c) At least two houses have white chimneys
(d) At least two houses have green roofs
(e) At least two houses have yellow roofs

Ans: (c)

2. Which must be false ?

(a) House A has a yellow roof
(b) House A & C have different color chimney
(c) House D has a black chimney
(d) House E has a white chimney
(e) House B&D have the same color roof.

Ans: (b)

3. If house C has a yellow roof. Which must be true.

(a) House E has a white chimney
(b) House E has a black chimney
(c) House E has a red chimney
(d) House D has a red chimney
(e) House C has a black chimney

Ans: (a)

4. Which possible combinations of roof & chimney can house

I. A red roof 7 a black chimney
II. A yellow roof & a red chimney
III. A yellow roof & a black chimney

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I & II only
(e) I&II&III

Ans: (e)

48. Find x+2y

(i). x+y=10
(ii). 2x+4y=20

Ans: (b)

49. Is angle BAC is a right angle

(i) AB=2BC
(2) BC=1.5AC

Ans: (e)

50. Is x greater than y

(i) x=2k
(ii) k=2y

Ans: (e)

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